Solution for 42.40 is what percent of 38:

42.40:38*100 =

(42.40*100):38 =

4240:38 = 111.57894736842

Now we have: 42.40 is what percent of 38 = 111.57894736842

Question: 42.40 is what percent of 38?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 38 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={38}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42.40}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={38}(1).

{x\%}={42.40}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{38}{42.40}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42.40}{38}

\Rightarrow{x} = {111.57894736842\%}

Therefore, {42.40} is {111.57894736842\%} of {38}.


What Percent Of Table For 42.40


Solution for 38 is what percent of 42.40:

38:42.40*100 =

(38*100):42.40 =

3800:42.40 = 89.622641509434

Now we have: 38 is what percent of 42.40 = 89.622641509434

Question: 38 is what percent of 42.40?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42.40 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42.40}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={38}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42.40}(1).

{x\%}={38}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42.40}{38}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{38}{42.40}

\Rightarrow{x} = {89.622641509434\%}

Therefore, {38} is {89.622641509434\%} of {42.40}.