Solution for 43.8 is what percent of 42:

43.8:42*100 =

(43.8*100):42 =

4380:42 = 104.28571428571

Now we have: 43.8 is what percent of 42 = 104.28571428571

Question: 43.8 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={43.8}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={43.8}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{43.8}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{43.8}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {104.28571428571\%}

Therefore, {43.8} is {104.28571428571\%} of {42}.


What Percent Of Table For 43.8


Solution for 42 is what percent of 43.8:

42:43.8*100 =

(42*100):43.8 =

4200:43.8 = 95.890410958904

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 43.8 = 95.890410958904

Question: 42 is what percent of 43.8?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 43.8 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={43.8}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={43.8}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{43.8}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{43.8}

\Rightarrow{x} = {95.890410958904\%}

Therefore, {42} is {95.890410958904\%} of {43.8}.