Solution for 45.8 is what percent of 42:

45.8:42*100 =

(45.8*100):42 =

4580:42 = 109.04761904762

Now we have: 45.8 is what percent of 42 = 109.04761904762

Question: 45.8 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={45.8}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={45.8}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{45.8}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{45.8}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {109.04761904762\%}

Therefore, {45.8} is {109.04761904762\%} of {42}.


What Percent Of Table For 45.8


Solution for 42 is what percent of 45.8:

42:45.8*100 =

(42*100):45.8 =

4200:45.8 = 91.703056768559

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 45.8 = 91.703056768559

Question: 42 is what percent of 45.8?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 45.8 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={45.8}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={45.8}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{45.8}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{45.8}

\Rightarrow{x} = {91.703056768559\%}

Therefore, {42} is {91.703056768559\%} of {45.8}.