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Solution for 458 is what percent of 42:

458:42*100 =

(458*100):42 =

45800:42 = 1090.48

Now we have: 458 is what percent of 42 = 1090.48

Question: 458 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={458}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={458}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{458}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{458}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {1090.48\%}

Therefore, {458} is {1090.48\%} of {42}.

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Solution for 42 is what percent of 458:

42:458*100 =

(42*100):458 =

4200:458 = 9.17

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 458 = 9.17

Question: 42 is what percent of 458?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 458 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={458}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={458}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{458}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{458}

\Rightarrow{x} = {9.17\%}

Therefore, {42} is {9.17\%} of {458}.