Solution for 46.000 is what percent of 42:

46.000:42*100 =

(46.000*100):42 =

4600:42 = 109.52380952381

Now we have: 46.000 is what percent of 42 = 109.52380952381

Question: 46.000 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={46.000}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={46.000}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{46.000}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{46.000}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {109.52380952381\%}

Therefore, {46.000} is {109.52380952381\%} of {42}.


What Percent Of Table For 46.000


Solution for 42 is what percent of 46.000:

42:46.000*100 =

(42*100):46.000 =

4200:46.000 = 91.304347826087

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 46.000 = 91.304347826087

Question: 42 is what percent of 46.000?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 46.000 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={46.000}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={46.000}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{46.000}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{46.000}

\Rightarrow{x} = {91.304347826087\%}

Therefore, {42} is {91.304347826087\%} of {46.000}.