Solution for 48.76 is what percent of 42:

48.76:42*100 =

(48.76*100):42 =

4876:42 = 116.09523809524

Now we have: 48.76 is what percent of 42 = 116.09523809524

Question: 48.76 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={48.76}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={48.76}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{48.76}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{48.76}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {116.09523809524\%}

Therefore, {48.76} is {116.09523809524\%} of {42}.


What Percent Of Table For 48.76


Solution for 42 is what percent of 48.76:

42:48.76*100 =

(42*100):48.76 =

4200:48.76 = 86.136177194422

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 48.76 = 86.136177194422

Question: 42 is what percent of 48.76?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 48.76 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={48.76}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={48.76}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{48.76}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{48.76}

\Rightarrow{x} = {86.136177194422\%}

Therefore, {42} is {86.136177194422\%} of {48.76}.