Solution for 492 is what percent of 1:

492:1*100 =

(492*100):1 =

49200:1 = 49200

Now we have: 492 is what percent of 1 = 49200

Question: 492 is what percent of 1?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 1 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={1}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={492}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={1}(1).

{x\%}={492}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{1}{492}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{492}{1}

\Rightarrow{x} = {49200\%}

Therefore, {492} is {49200\%} of {1}.


What Percent Of Table For 492


Solution for 1 is what percent of 492:

1:492*100 =

(1*100):492 =

100:492 = 0.2

Now we have: 1 is what percent of 492 = 0.2

Question: 1 is what percent of 492?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 492 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={492}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={1}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={492}(1).

{x\%}={1}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{492}{1}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{1}{492}

\Rightarrow{x} = {0.2\%}

Therefore, {1} is {0.2\%} of {492}.