Solution for 496 is what percent of 42:

496:42*100 =

(496*100):42 =

49600:42 = 1180.95

Now we have: 496 is what percent of 42 = 1180.95

Question: 496 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={496}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={496}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{496}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{496}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {1180.95\%}

Therefore, {496} is {1180.95\%} of {42}.


What Percent Of Table For 496


Solution for 42 is what percent of 496:

42:496*100 =

(42*100):496 =

4200:496 = 8.47

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 496 = 8.47

Question: 42 is what percent of 496?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 496 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={496}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={496}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{496}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{496}

\Rightarrow{x} = {8.47\%}

Therefore, {42} is {8.47\%} of {496}.