Solution for 49750 is what percent of 42:

49750:42*100 =

(49750*100):42 =

4975000:42 = 118452.38

Now we have: 49750 is what percent of 42 = 118452.38

Question: 49750 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={49750}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={49750}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{49750}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{49750}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {118452.38\%}

Therefore, {49750} is {118452.38\%} of {42}.


What Percent Of Table For 49750


Solution for 42 is what percent of 49750:

42:49750*100 =

(42*100):49750 =

4200:49750 = 0.08

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 49750 = 0.08

Question: 42 is what percent of 49750?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 49750 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={49750}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={49750}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{49750}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{49750}

\Rightarrow{x} = {0.08\%}

Therefore, {42} is {0.08\%} of {49750}.