Solution for 5008 is what percent of 42:

5008:42*100 =

(5008*100):42 =

500800:42 = 11923.81

Now we have: 5008 is what percent of 42 = 11923.81

Question: 5008 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={5008}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={5008}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{5008}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{5008}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {11923.81\%}

Therefore, {5008} is {11923.81\%} of {42}.


What Percent Of Table For 5008


Solution for 42 is what percent of 5008:

42:5008*100 =

(42*100):5008 =

4200:5008 = 0.84

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 5008 = 0.84

Question: 42 is what percent of 5008?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 5008 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={5008}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={5008}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{5008}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{5008}

\Rightarrow{x} = {0.84\%}

Therefore, {42} is {0.84\%} of {5008}.