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Solution for 5058 is what percent of 42:

5058:42*100 =

(5058*100):42 =

505800:42 = 12042.86

Now we have: 5058 is what percent of 42 = 12042.86

Question: 5058 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={5058}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={5058}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{5058}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{5058}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {12042.86\%}

Therefore, {5058} is {12042.86\%} of {42}.

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• 5058 is what percent of 100 = 5058

Solution for 42 is what percent of 5058:

42:5058*100 =

(42*100):5058 =

4200:5058 = 0.83

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 5058 = 0.83

Question: 42 is what percent of 5058?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 5058 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={5058}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={5058}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{5058}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{5058}

\Rightarrow{x} = {0.83\%}

Therefore, {42} is {0.83\%} of {5058}.