Solution for 51.42 is what percent of 1:

51.42:1*100 =

(51.42*100):1 =

5142:1 = 5142

Now we have: 51.42 is what percent of 1 = 5142

Question: 51.42 is what percent of 1?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 1 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={1}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={51.42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={1}(1).

{x\%}={51.42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{1}{51.42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{51.42}{1}

\Rightarrow{x} = {5142\%}

Therefore, {51.42} is {5142\%} of {1}.


What Percent Of Table For 51.42


Solution for 1 is what percent of 51.42:

1:51.42*100 =

(1*100):51.42 =

100:51.42 = 1.9447685725399

Now we have: 1 is what percent of 51.42 = 1.9447685725399

Question: 1 is what percent of 51.42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 51.42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={51.42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={1}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={51.42}(1).

{x\%}={1}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{51.42}{1}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{1}{51.42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {1.9447685725399\%}

Therefore, {1} is {1.9447685725399\%} of {51.42}.