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Solution for 578 is what percent of 42:

578:42*100 =

(578*100):42 =

57800:42 = 1376.19

Now we have: 578 is what percent of 42 = 1376.19

Question: 578 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={578}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={578}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{578}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{578}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {1376.19\%}

Therefore, {578} is {1376.19\%} of {42}.

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• 578 is what percent of 99 = 583.84
• 578 is what percent of 100 = 578

Solution for 42 is what percent of 578:

42:578*100 =

(42*100):578 =

4200:578 = 7.27

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 578 = 7.27

Question: 42 is what percent of 578?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 578 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={578}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={578}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{578}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{578}

\Rightarrow{x} = {7.27\%}

Therefore, {42} is {7.27\%} of {578}.