Solution for 6.80 is what percent of 42:

6.80:42*100 =

(6.80*100):42 =

680:42 = 16.190476190476

Now we have: 6.80 is what percent of 42 = 16.190476190476

Question: 6.80 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={6.80}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={6.80}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{6.80}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{6.80}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {16.190476190476\%}

Therefore, {6.80} is {16.190476190476\%} of {42}.


What Percent Of Table For 6.80


Solution for 42 is what percent of 6.80:

42:6.80*100 =

(42*100):6.80 =

4200:6.80 = 617.64705882353

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 6.80 = 617.64705882353

Question: 42 is what percent of 6.80?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 6.80 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={6.80}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={6.80}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{6.80}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{6.80}

\Rightarrow{x} = {617.64705882353\%}

Therefore, {42} is {617.64705882353\%} of {6.80}.