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Solution for 632 is what percent of 42:

632:42*100 =

(632*100):42 =

63200:42 = 1504.76

Now we have: 632 is what percent of 42 = 1504.76

Question: 632 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={632}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={632}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{632}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{632}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {1504.76\%}

Therefore, {632} is {1504.76\%} of {42}.

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• 632 is what percent of 100 = 632

Solution for 42 is what percent of 632:

42:632*100 =

(42*100):632 =

4200:632 = 6.65

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 632 = 6.65

Question: 42 is what percent of 632?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 632 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={632}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={632}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{632}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{632}

\Rightarrow{x} = {6.65\%}

Therefore, {42} is {6.65\%} of {632}.