Solution for 672 is what percent of 40:

672:40*100 =

(672*100):40 =

67200:40 = 1680

Now we have: 672 is what percent of 40 = 1680

Question: 672 is what percent of 40?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 40 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={40}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={672}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={40}(1).

{x\%}={672}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{40}{672}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{672}{40}

\Rightarrow{x} = {1680\%}

Therefore, {672} is {1680\%} of {40}.


What Percent Of Table For 672


Solution for 40 is what percent of 672:

40:672*100 =

(40*100):672 =

4000:672 = 5.95

Now we have: 40 is what percent of 672 = 5.95

Question: 40 is what percent of 672?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 672 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={672}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={40}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={672}(1).

{x\%}={40}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{672}{40}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{40}{672}

\Rightarrow{x} = {5.95\%}

Therefore, {40} is {5.95\%} of {672}.