Solution for 68. is what percent of 42:

68.:42*100 =

(68.*100):42 =

6800:42 = 161.90476190476

Now we have: 68. is what percent of 42 = 161.90476190476

Question: 68. is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={68.}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={68.}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{68.}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{68.}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {161.90476190476\%}

Therefore, {68.} is {161.90476190476\%} of {42}.


What Percent Of Table For 68.


Solution for 42 is what percent of 68.:

42:68.*100 =

(42*100):68. =

4200:68. = 61.764705882353

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 68. = 61.764705882353

Question: 42 is what percent of 68.?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 68. is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={68.}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={68.}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{68.}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{68.}

\Rightarrow{x} = {61.764705882353\%}

Therefore, {42} is {61.764705882353\%} of {68.}.