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Solution for 683 is what percent of 42:

683:42*100 =

(683*100):42 =

68300:42 = 1626.19

Now we have: 683 is what percent of 42 = 1626.19

Question: 683 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={683}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={683}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{683}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{683}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {1626.19\%}

Therefore, {683} is {1626.19\%} of {42}.

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• 683 is what percent of 100 = 683

Solution for 42 is what percent of 683:

42:683*100 =

(42*100):683 =

4200:683 = 6.15

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 683 = 6.15

Question: 42 is what percent of 683?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 683 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={683}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={683}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{683}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{683}

\Rightarrow{x} = {6.15\%}

Therefore, {42} is {6.15\%} of {683}.