Solution for 684 is what percent of 42:

684:42*100 =

(684*100):42 =

68400:42 = 1628.57

Now we have: 684 is what percent of 42 = 1628.57

Question: 684 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={684}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={684}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{684}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{684}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {1628.57\%}

Therefore, {684} is {1628.57\%} of {42}.


What Percent Of Table For 684


Solution for 42 is what percent of 684:

42:684*100 =

(42*100):684 =

4200:684 = 6.14

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 684 = 6.14

Question: 42 is what percent of 684?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 684 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={684}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={684}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{684}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{684}

\Rightarrow{x} = {6.14\%}

Therefore, {42} is {6.14\%} of {684}.