Solution for 742 is what percent of 42:

742:42*100 =

(742*100):42 =

74200:42 = 1766.67

Now we have: 742 is what percent of 42 = 1766.67

Question: 742 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={742}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={742}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{742}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{742}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {1766.67\%}

Therefore, {742} is {1766.67\%} of {42}.


What Percent Of Table For 742


Solution for 42 is what percent of 742:

42:742*100 =

(42*100):742 =

4200:742 = 5.66

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 742 = 5.66

Question: 42 is what percent of 742?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 742 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={742}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={742}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{742}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{742}

\Rightarrow{x} = {5.66\%}

Therefore, {42} is {5.66\%} of {742}.