Solution for 764 is what percent of 42:

764:42*100 =

(764*100):42 =

76400:42 = 1819.05

Now we have: 764 is what percent of 42 = 1819.05

Question: 764 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={764}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={764}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{764}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{764}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {1819.05\%}

Therefore, {764} is {1819.05\%} of {42}.


What Percent Of Table For 764


Solution for 42 is what percent of 764:

42:764*100 =

(42*100):764 =

4200:764 = 5.5

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 764 = 5.5

Question: 42 is what percent of 764?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 764 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={764}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={764}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{764}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{764}

\Rightarrow{x} = {5.5\%}

Therefore, {42} is {5.5\%} of {764}.