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Solution for 766 is what percent of 42:

766:42*100 =

(766*100):42 =

76600:42 = 1823.81

Now we have: 766 is what percent of 42 = 1823.81

Question: 766 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={766}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={766}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{766}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{766}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {1823.81\%}

Therefore, {766} is {1823.81\%} of {42}.

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• 766 is what percent of 100 = 766

Solution for 42 is what percent of 766:

42:766*100 =

(42*100):766 =

4200:766 = 5.48

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 766 = 5.48

Question: 42 is what percent of 766?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 766 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={766}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={766}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{766}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{766}

\Rightarrow{x} = {5.48\%}

Therefore, {42} is {5.48\%} of {766}.