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Solution for 80300 is what percent of 42:

80300:42*100 =

(80300*100):42 =

8030000:42 = 191190.48

Now we have: 80300 is what percent of 42 = 191190.48

Question: 80300 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={80300}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={80300}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{80300}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{80300}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {191190.48\%}

Therefore, {80300} is {191190.48\%} of {42}.

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Solution for 42 is what percent of 80300:

42:80300*100 =

(42*100):80300 =

4200:80300 = 0.05

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 80300 = 0.05

Question: 42 is what percent of 80300?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 80300 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={80300}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={80300}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{80300}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{80300}

\Rightarrow{x} = {0.05\%}

Therefore, {42} is {0.05\%} of {80300}.