Solution for What is 42 percent of 0.48:

42 percent *0.48 =

(42:100)*0.48 =

(42*0.48):100 =

20.16:100 = 0.2016

Now we have: 42 percent of 0.48 = 0.2016

Question: What is 42 percent of 0.48?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: Our output value is 0.48.

Step 2: We represent the unknown value with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1 above,{0.48}={100\%}.

Step 4: Similarly, {x}={42\%}.

Step 5: This results in a pair of simple equations:

{0.48}={100\%}(1).

{x}={42\%}(2).

Step 6: By dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and noting that both the RHS (right hand side) of both
equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{0.48}{x}=\frac{100\%}{42\%}

Step 7: Again, the reciprocal of both sides gives

\frac{x}{0.48}=\frac{42}{100}

\Rightarrow{x} = {0.2016}

Therefore, {42\%} of {0.48} is {0.2016}


Percentage Of Table For 0.48

Percentage of
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Solution for What is 0.48 percent of 42:

0.48 percent *42 =

(0.48:100)*42 =

(0.48*42):100 =

20.16:100 = 0.2016

Now we have: 0.48 percent of 42 = 0.2016

Question: What is 0.48 percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: Our output value is 42.

Step 2: We represent the unknown value with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1 above,{42}={100\%}.

Step 4: Similarly, {x}={0.48\%}.

Step 5: This results in a pair of simple equations:

{42}={100\%}(1).

{x}={0.48\%}(2).

Step 6: By dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and noting that both the RHS (right hand side) of both
equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{42}{x}=\frac{100\%}{0.48\%}

Step 7: Again, the reciprocal of both sides gives

\frac{x}{42}=\frac{0.48}{100}

\Rightarrow{x} = {0.2016}

Therefore, {0.48\%} of {42} is {0.2016}