Percentage Calculator: What is 42 percent of 1.80? = 0.756

42 percent *1.80 =

(42:100)*1.80 =

(42*1.80):100 =

75.6:100 = 0.756

Now we have: 42 percent of 1.80 = 0.756

Question: What is 42 percent of 1.80?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: Our output value is 1.80.

Step 2: We represent the unknown value with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1 above,{1.80}={100\%}.

Step 4: Similarly, {x}={42\%}.

Step 5: This results in a pair of simple equations:

{1.80}={100\%}(1).

{x}={42\%}(2).

Step 6: By dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and noting that both the RHS (right hand side) of both
equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{1.80}{x}=\frac{100\%}{42\%}

Step 7: Again, the reciprocal of both sides gives

\frac{x}{1.80}=\frac{42}{100}

\Rightarrow{x} = {0.756}

Therefore, {42\%} of {1.80} is {0.756}

Percentage of

Difference

1.80 percent *42 =

(1.80:100)*42 =

(1.80*42):100 =

75.6:100 = 0.756

Now we have: 1.80 percent of 42 = 0.756

Question: What is 1.80 percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: Our output value is 42.

Step 2: We represent the unknown value with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1 above,{42}={100\%}.

Step 4: Similarly, {x}={1.80\%}.

Step 5: This results in a pair of simple equations:

{42}={100\%}(1).

{x}={1.80\%}(2).

Step 6: By dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and noting that both the RHS (right hand side) of both
equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{42}{x}=\frac{100\%}{1.80\%}

Step 7: Again, the reciprocal of both sides gives

\frac{x}{42}=\frac{1.80}{100}

\Rightarrow{x} = {0.756}

Therefore, {1.80\%} of {42} is {0.756}

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