Solution for What is 42 percent of 368:

42 percent *368 =

(42:100)*368 =

(42*368):100 =

15456:100 = 154.56

Now we have: 42 percent of 368 = 154.56

Question: What is 42 percent of 368?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: Our output value is 368.

Step 2: We represent the unknown value with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1 above,{368}={100\%}.

Step 4: Similarly, {x}={42\%}.

Step 5: This results in a pair of simple equations:

{368}={100\%}(1).

{x}={42\%}(2).

Step 6: By dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and noting that both the RHS (right hand side) of both
equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{368}{x}=\frac{100\%}{42\%}

Step 7: Again, the reciprocal of both sides gives

\frac{x}{368}=\frac{42}{100}

\Rightarrow{x} = {154.56}

Therefore, {42\%} of {368} is {154.56}


Percentage Of Table For 368

Percentage of
Difference

Solution for What is 368 percent of 42:

368 percent *42 =

(368:100)*42 =

(368*42):100 =

15456:100 = 154.56

Now we have: 368 percent of 42 = 154.56

Question: What is 368 percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: Our output value is 42.

Step 2: We represent the unknown value with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1 above,{42}={100\%}.

Step 4: Similarly, {x}={368\%}.

Step 5: This results in a pair of simple equations:

{42}={100\%}(1).

{x}={368\%}(2).

Step 6: By dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and noting that both the RHS (right hand side) of both
equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{42}{x}=\frac{100\%}{368\%}

Step 7: Again, the reciprocal of both sides gives

\frac{x}{42}=\frac{368}{100}

\Rightarrow{x} = {154.56}

Therefore, {368\%} of {42} is {154.56}