Solution for What is 42 percent of 38.50:

42 percent *38.50 =

(42:100)*38.50 =

(42*38.50):100 =

1617:100 = 16.17

Now we have: 42 percent of 38.50 = 16.17

Question: What is 42 percent of 38.50?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: Our output value is 38.50.

Step 2: We represent the unknown value with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1 above,{38.50}={100\%}.

Step 4: Similarly, {x}={42\%}.

Step 5: This results in a pair of simple equations:

{38.50}={100\%}(1).

{x}={42\%}(2).

Step 6: By dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and noting that both the RHS (right hand side) of both
equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{38.50}{x}=\frac{100\%}{42\%}

Step 7: Again, the reciprocal of both sides gives

\frac{x}{38.50}=\frac{42}{100}

\Rightarrow{x} = {16.17}

Therefore, {42\%} of {38.50} is {16.17}


Percentage Of Table For 38.50

Percentage of
Difference

Solution for What is 38.50 percent of 42:

38.50 percent *42 =

(38.50:100)*42 =

(38.50*42):100 =

1617:100 = 16.17

Now we have: 38.50 percent of 42 = 16.17

Question: What is 38.50 percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: Our output value is 42.

Step 2: We represent the unknown value with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1 above,{42}={100\%}.

Step 4: Similarly, {x}={38.50\%}.

Step 5: This results in a pair of simple equations:

{42}={100\%}(1).

{x}={38.50\%}(2).

Step 6: By dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and noting that both the RHS (right hand side) of both
equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{42}{x}=\frac{100\%}{38.50\%}

Step 7: Again, the reciprocal of both sides gives

\frac{x}{42}=\frac{38.50}{100}

\Rightarrow{x} = {16.17}

Therefore, {38.50\%} of {42} is {16.17}