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Solution for .06 is what percent of 32:

.06:32*100 =

(.06*100):32 =

6:32 = 0.19

Now we have: .06 is what percent of 32 = 0.19

Question: .06 is what percent of 32?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 32 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={32}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={.06}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={32}(1).

{x\%}={.06}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{32}{.06}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{.06}{32}

\Rightarrow{x} = {0.19\%}

Therefore, {.06} is {0.19\%} of {32}.

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• .06 is what percent of 100 = 0.06

Solution for 32 is what percent of .06:

32:.06*100 =

(32*100):.06 =

3200:.06 = 53333.33

Now we have: 32 is what percent of .06 = 53333.33

Question: 32 is what percent of .06?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that .06 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={.06}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={32}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={.06}(1).

{x\%}={32}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{.06}{32}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{32}{.06}

\Rightarrow{x} = {53333.33\%}

Therefore, {32} is {53333.33\%} of {.06}.