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Solution for .06 is what percent of 42:

.06:42*100 =

(.06*100):42 =

6:42 = 0.14

Now we have: .06 is what percent of 42 = 0.14

Question: .06 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={.06}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={.06}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{.06}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{.06}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {0.14\%}

Therefore, {.06} is {0.14\%} of {42}.

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• .06 is what percent of 100 = 0.06

Solution for 42 is what percent of .06:

42:.06*100 =

(42*100):.06 =

4200:.06 = 70000

Now we have: 42 is what percent of .06 = 70000

Question: 42 is what percent of .06?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that .06 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={.06}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={.06}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{.06}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{.06}

\Rightarrow{x} = {70000\%}

Therefore, {42} is {70000\%} of {.06}.