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Solution for .1 is what percent of 38:

.1:38*100 =

(.1*100):38 =

10:38 = 0.26

Now we have: .1 is what percent of 38 = 0.26

Question: .1 is what percent of 38?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 38 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={38}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={.1}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={38}(1).

{x\%}={.1}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{38}{.1}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{.1}{38}

\Rightarrow{x} = {0.26\%}

Therefore, {.1} is {0.26\%} of {38}.

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Solution for 38 is what percent of .1:

38:.1*100 =

(38*100):.1 =

3800:.1 = 38000

Now we have: 38 is what percent of .1 = 38000

Question: 38 is what percent of .1?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that .1 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={.1}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={38}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={.1}(1).

{x\%}={38}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{.1}{38}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{38}{.1}

\Rightarrow{x} = {38000\%}

Therefore, {38} is {38000\%} of {.1}.