Percentage Calculator: .1 is what percent of 42? = 0.24

Solution for .1 is what percent of 42:

.1:42*100 =

(.1*100):42 =

10:42 = 0.24

Now we have: .1 is what percent of 42 = 0.24

Question: .1 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={.1}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={.1}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{.1}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{.1}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {0.24\%}

Therefore, {.1} is {0.24\%} of {42}.

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Solution for 42 is what percent of .1:

42:.1*100 =

(42*100):.1 =

4200:.1 = 42000

Now we have: 42 is what percent of .1 = 42000

Question: 42 is what percent of .1?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that .1 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={.1}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={.1}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{.1}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{.1}

\Rightarrow{x} = {42000\%}

Therefore, {42} is {42000\%} of {.1}.

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