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Solution for 1 is what percent of 38450:

1:38450*100 =

(1*100):38450 =

100:38450 = 0.0026007802340702

Now we have: 1 is what percent of 38450 = 0.0026007802340702

Question: 1 is what percent of 38450?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 38450 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={38450}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={1}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={38450}(1).

{x\%}={1}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{38450}{1}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{1}{38450}

\Rightarrow{x} = {0.0026007802340702\%}

Therefore, {1} is {0.0026007802340702\%} of {38450}.

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Solution for 38450 is what percent of 1:

38450:1*100 =

(38450*100):1 =

3845000:1 = 3845000

Now we have: 38450 is what percent of 1 = 3845000

Question: 38450 is what percent of 1?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 1 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={1}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={38450}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={1}(1).

{x\%}={38450}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{1}{38450}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{38450}{1}

\Rightarrow{x} = {3845000\%}

Therefore, {38450} is {3845000\%} of {1}.