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Solution for 1 is what percent of 49.52:

1:49.52*100 =

(1*100):49.52 =

100:49.52 = 2.0193861066236

Now we have: 1 is what percent of 49.52 = 2.0193861066236

Question: 1 is what percent of 49.52?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 49.52 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={49.52}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={1}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={49.52}(1).

{x\%}={1}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{49.52}{1}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{1}{49.52}

\Rightarrow{x} = {2.0193861066236\%}

Therefore, {1} is {2.0193861066236\%} of {49.52}.

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Solution for 49.52 is what percent of 1:

49.52:1*100 =

(49.52*100):1 =

4952:1 = 4952

Now we have: 49.52 is what percent of 1 = 4952

Question: 49.52 is what percent of 1?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 1 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={1}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={49.52}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={1}(1).

{x\%}={49.52}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{1}{49.52}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{49.52}{1}

\Rightarrow{x} = {4952\%}

Therefore, {49.52} is {4952\%} of {1}.