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Solution for 1538 is what percent of 42:

1538:42*100 =

(1538*100):42 =

153800:42 = 3661.9

Now we have: 1538 is what percent of 42 = 3661.9

Question: 1538 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={1538}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={1538}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{1538}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{1538}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {3661.9\%}

Therefore, {1538} is {3661.9\%} of {42}.

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Solution for 42 is what percent of 1538:

42:1538*100 =

(42*100):1538 =

4200:1538 = 2.73

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 1538 = 2.73

Question: 42 is what percent of 1538?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 1538 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={1538}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={1538}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{1538}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{1538}

\Rightarrow{x} = {2.73\%}

Therefore, {42} is {2.73\%} of {1538}.