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Solution for 1538 is what percent of 72:

1538:72*100 =

(1538*100):72 =

153800:72 = 2136.11

Now we have: 1538 is what percent of 72 = 2136.11

Question: 1538 is what percent of 72?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 72 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={72}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={1538}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={72}(1).

{x\%}={1538}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{72}{1538}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{1538}{72}

\Rightarrow{x} = {2136.11\%}

Therefore, {1538} is {2136.11\%} of {72}.

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Solution for 72 is what percent of 1538:

72:1538*100 =

(72*100):1538 =

7200:1538 = 4.68

Now we have: 72 is what percent of 1538 = 4.68

Question: 72 is what percent of 1538?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 1538 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={1538}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={72}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={1538}(1).

{x\%}={72}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{1538}{72}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{72}{1538}

\Rightarrow{x} = {4.68\%}

Therefore, {72} is {4.68\%} of {1538}.