Solution for 162 is what percent of 38:

162:38*100 =

(162*100):38 =

16200:38 = 426.32

Now we have: 162 is what percent of 38 = 426.32

Question: 162 is what percent of 38?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 38 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={38}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={162}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={38}(1).

{x\%}={162}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{38}{162}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{162}{38}

\Rightarrow{x} = {426.32\%}

Therefore, {162} is {426.32\%} of {38}.


What Percent Of Table For 162


Solution for 38 is what percent of 162:

38:162*100 =

(38*100):162 =

3800:162 = 23.46

Now we have: 38 is what percent of 162 = 23.46

Question: 38 is what percent of 162?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 162 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={162}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={38}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={162}(1).

{x\%}={38}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{162}{38}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{38}{162}

\Rightarrow{x} = {23.46\%}

Therefore, {38} is {23.46\%} of {162}.