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Solution for 162 is what percent of 40:

162:40*100 =

(162*100):40 =

16200:40 = 405

Now we have: 162 is what percent of 40 = 405

Question: 162 is what percent of 40?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 40 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={40}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={162}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={40}(1).

{x\%}={162}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{40}{162}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{162}{40}

\Rightarrow{x} = {405\%}

Therefore, {162} is {405\%} of {40}.

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Solution for 40 is what percent of 162:

40:162*100 =

(40*100):162 =

4000:162 = 24.69

Now we have: 40 is what percent of 162 = 24.69

Question: 40 is what percent of 162?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 162 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={162}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={40}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={162}(1).

{x\%}={40}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{162}{40}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{40}{162}

\Rightarrow{x} = {24.69\%}

Therefore, {40} is {24.69\%} of {162}.