Solution for 34.42 is what percent of 42:

34.42:42*100 =

(34.42*100):42 =

3442:42 = 81.952380952381

Now we have: 34.42 is what percent of 42 = 81.952380952381

Question: 34.42 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={34.42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={34.42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{34.42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{34.42}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {81.952380952381\%}

Therefore, {34.42} is {81.952380952381\%} of {42}.


What Percent Of Table For 34.42


Solution for 42 is what percent of 34.42:

42:34.42*100 =

(42*100):34.42 =

4200:34.42 = 122.02208018594

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 34.42 = 122.02208018594

Question: 42 is what percent of 34.42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 34.42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={34.42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={34.42}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{34.42}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{34.42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {122.02208018594\%}

Therefore, {42} is {122.02208018594\%} of {34.42}.