Solution for 34.42 is what percent of 48:

34.42:48*100 =

(34.42*100):48 =

3442:48 = 71.708333333333

Now we have: 34.42 is what percent of 48 = 71.708333333333

Question: 34.42 is what percent of 48?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 48 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={48}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={34.42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={48}(1).

{x\%}={34.42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{48}{34.42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{34.42}{48}

\Rightarrow{x} = {71.708333333333\%}

Therefore, {34.42} is {71.708333333333\%} of {48}.


What Percent Of Table For 34.42


Solution for 48 is what percent of 34.42:

48:34.42*100 =

(48*100):34.42 =

4800:34.42 = 139.45380592679

Now we have: 48 is what percent of 34.42 = 139.45380592679

Question: 48 is what percent of 34.42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 34.42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={34.42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={48}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={34.42}(1).

{x\%}={48}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{34.42}{48}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{48}{34.42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {139.45380592679\%}

Therefore, {48} is {139.45380592679\%} of {34.42}.