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Solution for 42 is what percent of 168875:

42:168875*100 =

(42*100):168875 =

4200:168875 = 0.02

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 168875 = 0.02

Question: 42 is what percent of 168875?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 168875 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={168875}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={168875}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{168875}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{168875}

\Rightarrow{x} = {0.02\%}

Therefore, {42} is {0.02\%} of {168875}.

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• 42 is what percent of 21 = 200
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Solution for 168875 is what percent of 42:

168875:42*100 =

(168875*100):42 =

16887500:42 = 402083.33

Now we have: 168875 is what percent of 42 = 402083.33

Question: 168875 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={168875}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={168875}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{168875}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{168875}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {402083.33\%}

Therefore, {168875} is {402083.33\%} of {42}.