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Solution for 42 is what percent of 178:

42:178*100 =

(42*100):178 =

4200:178 = 23.6

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 178 = 23.6

Question: 42 is what percent of 178?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 178 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={178}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={178}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{178}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{178}

\Rightarrow{x} = {23.6\%}

Therefore, {42} is {23.6\%} of {178}.

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Solution for 178 is what percent of 42:

178:42*100 =

(178*100):42 =

17800:42 = 423.81

Now we have: 178 is what percent of 42 = 423.81

Question: 178 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={178}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={178}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{178}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{178}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {423.81\%}

Therefore, {178} is {423.81\%} of {42}.