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Solution for 42 is what percent of 768:

42:768*100 =

(42*100):768 =

4200:768 = 5.47

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 768 = 5.47

Question: 42 is what percent of 768?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 768 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={768}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={768}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{768}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{768}

\Rightarrow{x} = {5.47\%}

Therefore, {42} is {5.47\%} of {768}.

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Solution for 768 is what percent of 42:

768:42*100 =

(768*100):42 =

76800:42 = 1828.57

Now we have: 768 is what percent of 42 = 1828.57

Question: 768 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={768}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={768}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{768}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{768}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {1828.57\%}

Therefore, {768} is {1828.57\%} of {42}.