Solution for 46.8 is what percent of 1:

46.8:1*100 =

(46.8*100):1 =

4680:1 = 4680

Now we have: 46.8 is what percent of 1 = 4680

Question: 46.8 is what percent of 1?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 1 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={1}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={46.8}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={1}(1).

{x\%}={46.8}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{1}{46.8}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{46.8}{1}

\Rightarrow{x} = {4680\%}

Therefore, {46.8} is {4680\%} of {1}.


What Percent Of Table For 46.8


Solution for 1 is what percent of 46.8:

1:46.8*100 =

(1*100):46.8 =

100:46.8 = 2.1367521367521

Now we have: 1 is what percent of 46.8 = 2.1367521367521

Question: 1 is what percent of 46.8?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 46.8 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={46.8}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={1}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={46.8}(1).

{x\%}={1}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{46.8}{1}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{1}{46.8}

\Rightarrow{x} = {2.1367521367521\%}

Therefore, {1} is {2.1367521367521\%} of {46.8}.