Solution for 46.8 is what percent of 42:

46.8:42*100 =

(46.8*100):42 =

4680:42 = 111.42857142857

Now we have: 46.8 is what percent of 42 = 111.42857142857

Question: 46.8 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={46.8}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={46.8}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{46.8}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{46.8}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {111.42857142857\%}

Therefore, {46.8} is {111.42857142857\%} of {42}.


What Percent Of Table For 46.8


Solution for 42 is what percent of 46.8:

42:46.8*100 =

(42*100):46.8 =

4200:46.8 = 89.74358974359

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 46.8 = 89.74358974359

Question: 42 is what percent of 46.8?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 46.8 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={46.8}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={46.8}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{46.8}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{46.8}

\Rightarrow{x} = {89.74358974359\%}

Therefore, {42} is {89.74358974359\%} of {46.8}.